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HP HPE6-A75 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION 10
A network administrator wants to use Aruba AirWave to audit an AOS-Switch configuration. What rs one requirement?
- A. The switch specifies the AirWave IP address for the RADIUS server used for Telnet and SSH authentication.
- B. The switch is set to Manage Read-Write mode in AirWave but is not set to Monitor Only + Firmware Updates.
- C. The switch defines the AirWave IP address in its zero touch provisioning (ZTP) profile.
- D. The switch is authorized in AirWave, which has the correct credentials to log in as a CLI manager.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
An AD user's department attribute is configured as *HR". The user connects on Monday using their Windows Laptop to a switch that belongs to the Device Group HQ. Which role is assigned to the user in ClearPass?
- A. Remote Employee
- B. iOS Device
- C. Executive
- D. HR Local
- E. Vendor
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic between the servers m Area l takes a less optimal path rather than the link associated with VLAN l OOO, subnet 10.0.0.0/30. Based on the exhibits, why is this the case?
- A. OSPF routing switches choose the best intra-area routes based on Area 1 links only.
- B. The metric on the VLAN 1000 interface is too low.
- C. Switch-1 and Switch-2 cannot achieve adjacency on VLAN 1000 due to mismatches.
- D. The link between Switch-1 and Switch-2 has gone down.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 13
Which statement is true about the Endpoint Profiler? (Select two.)
- A. The Endpoint Profiler uses DHCP fingerprinting for device categorization.
- B. The Endpoint Profiler requires the Onboard license to be enabled.
- C. Endpoint Profiler requires a profiling license.
- D. The Endpoint Profiler can only categorize laptops and desktops.
- E. Data obtained from the Endpoint Profiler can be used in Enforcement Policy.
Answer: A,E
NEW QUESTION 14
An administrator mistakenly configures the wrong VLAN setting on a managed controller's interface. This causes the controller to lose management access to the Mobility Master (MM).
Which mechanism will then attempt to restore the previous working configuration on the managed controller?
- A. restore config
- B. disaster recovery
- C. bulk configuration
- D. auto-rollback
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 15
An administrator supports a cluster of four Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs) with management addresses of 10.1.100.101, 10.1.100.102, 10.1.100.103, and 10.1.202.181. The administrator accesses an AP associated with this cluster, reboots it and accesses apboot mode. The administrator executes the printenv command. Which AP parameter contains the IP addresses of the cluster members that the AP should use to connect to the cluster?
- A. Servername
- B. Noodelist
- C. Master_ip
- D. Cfg_lms
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
Several interfaces on an AOS-Switch enforce 802. IX to a RADIUS server at 10.254.378.521. The interface 802. IX settings are shown in the exhibit, and 802. IX is also enabled globally. The security team have added a requirement tor port security on the interfaces as well. Before administrators enable port security, which additional step must they complete to prevent issues?
- A. Manually add legitimate MAC addresses to the switch authorized MAC list.
- B. Enable DHCP snooping on VLAN 20.
- C. Set an 802. l X client limit on the interfaces.
- D. Enable eavesdropping protection on the interfaces.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the configuration of me create_user form shown, which statement accurately describes the status?
- A. The visitor_company field will be visible to the guest users when they access the web login page.
- B. The visitor_phone field will be visible to the guest users in the web login page.
- C. The visitor_company field will be visible to operators creating the account.
- D. The email field will be visible to guest users when they access the web login page.
- E. The visitor_phone field will be visible to operators creating the account.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 18
in a VPN that uses certificate-based authentication, which component must be configured on the Mobility Master (MM) to allow a RAP to successfully connect to a Mobility Controller (MC)
- A. RAP VPN username and password
- B. RAP IPSec pre-shared key
- C. WLAN and new RAP group
- D. RAP whitelist
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
A company has attempted to implement OSPF without success. The devices in Area I need to be able to reach Area 2. Routes should be aggregated for advertisement in other areas. What must be changed to meet these requirements?
- A. Add the 10.2.0.0/16 range on Swttch-1 and the 10.1.0.0/16 range on Switch-2.
- B. Move the 10.1.0.0/16 range to Area 2 on Switch-1 and the 10.2.0.0/16rangetoArea 1 onSwitch-2.
- C. Change Area 3 to Area 0; remove Area 1 from Switch-2 and Area 2 from Switch-1.
- D. Add Area 1 and Area 2 on VIAN 100 on both Switch-1 and Switch-2. Remove Area 3.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 20
An administrator needs to authenticate users connected to an ArubaOS Switch where the switch authenticates the user, assigns the firewall policies to the user, and processes some of the users' traffic. Which connection method should the administrator configure on the ArubaOS-Switch?
- A. VLAN tunneled mode
- B. Split-tunneled mode
- C. Per-user tunneled node
- D. Per-port tunneled node
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 21
A customer wants to implement Virtual IP redundancy, such that in case of a ClearPass server outage, 802.1x authentications will not be interrupted. The administrator has enabled a single Virtual IP address on two ClearPass servers.
Which statements accurately describe next steps? (Select two.)
- A. The NAD should be configured with the primary node IP address for RADIUS authentication on the 802.1x network.
- B. Both the primary and secondary nodes will respond to authentication requests sent to the Virtual IP address when the primary node is active.
- C. A new Virtual IP address should be created for each NAD.
- D. The primary node will respond to authentication requests sent to the Virtual IP address when the primary node is active.
- E. The NAD should be configured with the Virtual IP address for RADIUS authentications on the 802.1x network.
Answer: D,E
NEW QUESTION 22
What are Operator Profiles used for?
- A. to enforce role based access control for Aruba Controllers
- B. to enforce role based access control for ClearPass Guest Admin users
- C. to map AD attributes to admin privilege levels in ClearPass Guest
- D. to enforce role based access control for ClearPass Policy Manager admin users
- E. to assign ClearPass roles to guest users
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 23
What is the purpose of the captive portal URL hash key on an AOS-Switch?
- A. It does not let users alter the URL that redirects them to the portal.
- B. It encrypts and secures the RADIUS messages that the AOS-Switch sends to ClearPass.
- C. It authenticates guest users based on the password the users enter hi the portal.
- D. It specifies the captive portal URL and conceals the setting in the config.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.
A known unicast packet is received from Switch-1 on the standby and must be forwarded to Switch-2. How does the VSF fabric decide which port in the aggregated (ink should forward the packet?
- A. The standby sends the packet to the commander over a VSF link, and the commander decides the correct port.
- B. The standby selects the port on the designated forwarder for the aggregation.
- C. The standby uses the typical load sharing algorithm, and it might select either its port or the commander's port.
- D. The standby uses its own port in the link aggregation to forward the fabric.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 25
A university wants to deploy ClearPass with the Guest module. They have two types of users that need to use web login authentication. The first type of users are students whose accounts are in an Active Directory server. The second type of users are friends of students who need to self-register to access the network.
How should the service be setup in the Policy Manager for this Network?
- A. Either the Guest User Repository or Active Directory server should be the single authentication source
- B. Guest User Repository as the authentication source and the Active Directory server as the authorization source
- C. Active Directory server as the authentication source, and Guest User Repository as the authorization source
- D. Guest User Repository and Active Directory server both as authentication sources
- E. Guest User Repository as the authentication source, and Guest User Repository and Active Directory server as authorization sources
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 26
An administrator deploys Aruba Mobility Controller 7005s to a company's branch offices. The administrator wants to disable the console port to prevent unauthorized access to the controllers.
Which controller command should the administrator use to implement this policy?
- A. no mgmt-user console
- B. console disable
- C. mgmt-user console-block
- D. no console enable
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 27
OSPF is configured on an AOS-Switch, and the network administrator sets the router ID to 10.0.0.1. The administrator wants to be able to reach the switch at this ID from any location throughout the OSPF system. The administrator also needs the router ID to De stable and available, even if some links on the switch fail.
What should the administrator do?
- A. Configure 10.0.0.1 as a manual OSPF neighbor on each switch in the OSPF system.
- B. Make sure that 10.0.0.1 is the IP address on the VLAN with the lowest ID.
- C. Configure 10.0.0.1 as a secondary IP address on the switch 00BM poet.
- D. Configure 10.0.0.1 on a loopback interface, and enable OSPF on that interface.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the configuration of the Enforcement Profiles In the Onboard Authorization service shown, which Onboarding action will occur?
- A. After logging in on the Onboard web login page, the device will be disconnected form and reconnected to the network before Onboard begins.
- B. The device's onboard authorization request will be denied.
- C. The device will be disconnected from and reconnected to the network after Onboarding is completed.
- D. The device will be disconnected after post-Onboarding EAP-TLS authentication, so a second EAP-TLS authentication is performed.
- E. The device will be disconnected from the network after Onboarding so that an EAP-TLS authentication is not performed.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 29
An administrator deploys an AP at a branch office. The branch office has a private WAN circuit that provides connectivity to a corporate office controller. An Ethernet port on the AP is connected to a network storage device that contains sensitive information. The administrator is concerned about sending this traffic in clear-text across the private WAN circuit.
What can the administrator do to prevent this problem?
- A. Enable AP encryption for wired ports.
- B. Enable IPSec encryption on the AP's wired ports.
- C. Redirect the wired port traffic to an AP-to-controller GRE tunnel.
- D. Convert the campus AP into a RAP.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch-1 and Switch-2 connect on interface A23. The switches experience a connectivity issue. The network administrator sees that both switches show this interface as up. The administrator sees the output shown in the exhibit on Switch-1.
What is a typical issue that could cause this output?
- A. mismatched IP addresses on the VLAN for the link
- B. an issue with queuing, caused by mismatched QoS settings
- C. a hardware issue, such as a broken cable
- D. asymmetric routing introduced by a routing configuration error
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 31
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