CISA Practice Test Questions Updated 361 Questions [Q55-Q74]

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CISA Practice Test Questions Updated 361 Questions

ISACA CISA Dumps - Secret To Pass in First Attempt


Domains of ISACA CISA Exam

Our ISACA CISA Dumps covers the following objectives of domains or sections of the CISA Exam along with the percentage they hold in the exam:

  • Information System Auditing Process holds 21 percentiles of the exam CISA.
  • Information Systems Operation and Business Resilience (23%)
  • Protection of Information Assets (27%)
  • Information Systems Acquisition, Development, and implementation (12%)
  • Domination and Management of IT (17%)

 

NEW QUESTION 55
The technique of rummaging through commercial trash to collect useful business information is known as:

  • A. System diving
  • B. Intelligence diving
  • C. Information diving
  • D. Program diving
  • E. Identity diving
  • F. None of the choices.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dumpster diving in the form of information diving describes the practice of rummaging through commercial trash to find useful information such as files, letters, memos, passwords ...etc.

 

NEW QUESTION 56
An organization's plans to implement a virtualization strategy enabling multiple operating systems on a single host. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern with this strategy?

  • A. Adequate storage space
  • B. Application performance
  • C. Network bandwidth
  • D. Complexity of administration

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 57
IS auditors are MOST likely to perform compliance tests of internal controls if, after their initial evaluation of the controls, they conclude that control risks are within the acceptable limits. True or false?

  • A. True
  • B. False

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
IS auditors are most likely to perform compliance tests of internal controls if, after their initial evaluation of the controls, they conclude that control risks are within the acceptable limits. Think of it this way: If any reliance is placed on internal controls, that reliance must be validated through compliance testing. High control risk results in little reliance on internal controls, which results in additional substantive testing.

 

NEW QUESTION 58
An IS auditor is assessing an organization's data loss prevention (DLP) solution for protecting intellectual property from insider theft. Which of the following would the auditor consider MOST important for effective data protection?

  • A. Identification and classification of sensitive data
  • B. Encryption of data copied to flash drives
  • C. Creation of DLP policies and procedures
  • D. Employee training on information handling

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 59
Which of the following are the characteristics of a good password?

  • A. It has mixed-case alphabetic characters, numbers, and binary codes.
  • B. It has mixed-case alphabetic characters, numbers, and symbols.
  • C. It has mixed-case alphabetic characters and numbers.
  • D. It has mixed-case alphabetic characters and symbols.
  • E. None of the choices.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Passwords are the first defensive line in protecting your data and information. Your users need to be made
aware of what a password provides them and what can be done with their password. They also need to be
made aware of the things that make up a good password versus a bad password. A good password has
mixed-case alphabetic characters, numbers, and symbols. Do use a password that is at least eight or more
characters.

 

NEW QUESTION 60
A certificate authority (CA) can delegate the processes of:

  • A. establishing a link between the requesting entity and its public key.
  • B. revocation and suspension of a subscriber's certificate.
  • C. generation and distribution of the CA public key.
  • D. issuing and distributing subscriber certificates.,

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Establishing a link between the requesting entity and its public key is a function of a registration authority.
This may or may not be performed by a CA; therefore, this function can be delegated. Revocation and suspension and issuance and distribution of the subscriber certificate are functions of the subscriber certificate life cycle management, which the CA must perform.
Generation and distribution of the CA public key is a part of the CA key life cycle management process and, as such, cannot be delegated.

 

NEW QUESTION 61
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing vulnerability scanning on critical IT infrastructure?

  • A. The scanning will not degrade system performance.
  • B. The scanning will be performed during non-peak hours.
  • C. The scanning will be cost-effective.
  • D. The scanning will be followed by penetration testing.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 62
The risk of communication failure in an e-commerce environment is BEST minimized through the use of

  • A. compression software to minimize transmission duration.
  • B. functional or message acknowledgments
  • C. alternative or diverse routing
  • D. a packet filtering firewall to reroute messages.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 63
A retailer normally uses a scanner to read product labels and input product codes and prices. The unit is not functioning and staff are keying information manually. With respect to the accuracy of the input, it is likely that:

  • A. detection risk has decreased.
  • B. inherent risk has decreased.
  • C. control risk has increased.
  • D. audit risk has increased.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Information System Operations, Maintenance and Support

 

NEW QUESTION 64
An IS auditor is reviewing a software-based configuration. Which of the following represents the GREATEST vulnerability? The firewall software:

  • A. is configured as a virtual private network (VPN) endpoint.
  • B. is configured with an implicit deny rule as the last rule in the rule base.
  • C. has been configured with rules permitting or denying access to systems or networks.
  • D. is installed on an operating system with default settings.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Default settings are often published and provide an intruder with predictable configuration information, which allows easier system compromise. To mitigate this risk, firewall software should be installed on a system using a hardened operating system that has limited functionality, providing only the services necessary to support the firewall software. Choices A, C and D are normal or best practices for firewall configurations.

 

NEW QUESTION 65
On a daily basis, an in-house development team moves duplicate copies of production data containing personally identifiable information (Pll) to the test environment Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the privacy risk involved?

  • A. Encrypt the data file
  • B. Require data owners to sign off on production data
  • C. Obtain customer opt-in acceptances.
  • D. Sanitize the data in the test environment

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 66
Which of the following layer of an OSI model transmits and receives the bit stream as electrical, optical or
radio signals over an appropriate medium or carrier?

  • A. Physical Layer
  • B. Network Layer
  • C. Data Link Layer
  • D. Transport Layer

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Information System Operations, Maintenance and Support
Explanation/Reference:
The physical layer, the lowest layer of the OSI model, is concerned with the transmission and reception of
the unstructured raw bit stream over a physical medium. It describes the electrical/optical, mechanical, and
functional interfaces to the physical medium, and carries the signals for all of the higher layers.
For your exam you should know below information about OSI model:
The Open Systems Interconnection model (OSI) is a conceptual model that characterizes and standardizes
the internal functions of a communication system by partitioning it into abstraction layers. The model is a
product of the Open Systems Interconnection project at the International Organization for Standardization
(ISO), maintained by the identification ISO/IEC 7498-1.
The model groups communication functions into seven logical layers. A layer serves the layer above it and
is served by the layer below it. For example, a layer that provides error-free communications across a
network provides the path needed by applications above it, while it calls the next lower layer to send and
receive packets that make up the contents of that path. Two instances at one layer are connected by a
horizontal.
OSI Model

PHYSICAL LAYER
The physical layer, the lowest layer of the OSI model, is concerned with the transmission and reception of
the unstructured raw bit stream over a physical medium. It describes the electrical/optical, mechanical, and
functional interfaces to the physical medium, and carries the signals for all of the higher layers. It provides:
Data encoding: modifies the simple digital signal pattern (1s and 0s) used by the PC to better
accommodate the characteristics of the physical medium, and to aid in bit and frame synchronization. It
determines:
What signal state represents a binary 1
How the receiving station knows when a "bit-time" starts
How the receiving station delimits a frame
DATA LINK LAYER
The data link layer provides error-free transfer of data frames from one node to another over the physical
layer, allowing layers above it to assume virtually error-free transmission over the link. To do this, the data
link layer provides:
Link establishment and termination: establishes and terminates the logical link between two nodes.
Frame traffic control: tells the transmitting node to "back-off" when no frame buffers are available.
Frame sequencing: transmits/receives frames sequentially.
Frame acknowledgment: provides/expects frame acknowledgments. Detects and recovers from errors that
occur in the physical layer by retransmitting non-acknowledged frames and handling duplicate frame
receipt.
Frame delimiting: creates and recognizes frame boundaries.
Frame error checking: checks received frames for integrity.
Media access management: determines when the node "has the right" to use the physical medium.
NETWORK LAYER
The network layer controls the operation of the subnet, deciding which physical path the data should take
based on network conditions, priority of service, and other factors. It provides:
Routing: routes frames among networks.
Subnet traffic control: routers (network layer intermediate systems) can instruct a sending station to
"throttle back" its frame transmission when the router's buffer fills up.
Frame fragmentation: if it determines that a downstream router's maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is
less than the frame size, a router can fragment a frame for transmission and re-assembly at the destination
station.
Logical-physical address mapping: translates logical addresses, or names, into physical addresses.
Subnet usage accounting: has accounting functions to keep track of frames forwarded by subnet
intermediate systems, to produce billing information.
Communications Subnet
The network layer software must build headers so that the network layer software residing in the subnet
intermediate systems can recognize them and use them to route data to the destination address.
This layer relieves the upper layers of the need to know anything about the data transmission and
intermediate switching technologies used to connect systems. It establishes, maintains and terminates
connections across the intervening communications facility (one or several intermediate systems in the
communication subnet).
In the network layer and the layers below, peer protocols exist between a node and its immediate neighbor,
but the neighbor may be a node through which data is routed, not the destination station. The source and
destination stations may be separated by many intermediate systems.
TRANSPORT LAYER
The transport layer ensures that messages are delivered error-free, in sequence, and with no losses or
duplications. It relieves the higher layer protocols from any concern with the transfer of data between them
and their peers.
The size and complexity of a transport protocol depends on the type of service it can get from the network
layer. For a reliable network layer with virtual circuit capability, a minimal transport layer is required. If the
network layer is unreliable and/or only supports datagram's, the transport protocol should include extensive
error detection and recovery.
The transport layer provides:
Message segmentation: accepts a message from the (session) layer above it, splits the message into
smaller units (if not already small enough), and passes the smaller units down to the network layer. The
transport layer at the destination station reassembles the message.
Message acknowledgment: provides reliable end-to-end message delivery with acknowledgments.
Message traffic control: tells the transmitting station to "back-off" when no message buffers are available.
Session multiplexing: multiplexes several message streams, or sessions onto one logical link and keeps
track of which messages belong to which sessions (see session layer).
Typically, the transport layer can accept relatively large messages, but there are strict message size limits
imposed by the network (or lower) layer. Consequently, the transport layer must break up the messages
into smaller units, or frames, pretending a header to each frame.
The transport layer header information must then include control information, such as message start and
message end flags, to enable the transport layer on the other end to recognize message boundaries. In
addition, if the lower layers do not maintain sequence, the transport header must contain sequence
information to enable the transport layer on the receiving end to get the pieces back together in the right
order before handing the received message up to the layer above.
End-to-end layers
Unlike the lower "subnet" layers whose protocol is between immediately adjacent nodes, the transport layer
and the layers above are true "source to destination" or end-to-end layers, and are not concerned with the
details of the underlying communications facility. Transport layer software (and software above it) on the
source station carries on a conversation with similar software on the destination station by using message
headers and control messages.
SESSION LAYER
The session layer allows session establishment between processes running on different stations. It
provides:
Session establishment, maintenance and termination: allows two application processes on different
machines to establish, use and terminate a connection, called a session.
Session support: performs the functions that allow these processes to communicate over the network,
performing security, name recognition, logging, and so on.
PRESENTATION LAYER
The presentation layer formats the data to be presented to the application layer. It can be viewed as the
translator for the network. This layer may translate data from a format used by the application layer into a
common format at the sending station, then translate the common format to a format known to the
application layer at the receiving station.
The presentation layer provides:
Character code translation: for example, ASCII to EBCDIC.
Data conversion: bit order, CR-CR/LF, integer-floating point, and so on.
Data compression: reduces the number of bits that need to be transmitted on the network.
Data encryption: encrypt data for security purposes. For example, password encryption.
APPLICATION LAYER
The application layer serves as the window for users and application processes to access network
services. This layer contains a variety of commonly needed functions:
Resource sharing and device redirection
Remote file access
Remote printer access
Inter-process communication
Network management
Directory services
Electronic messaging (such as mail)
Network virtual terminals
The following were incorrect answers:
Transport layer - The transport layer ensures that messages are delivered error-free, in sequence, and with
no losses or duplications. It relieves the higher layer protocols from any concern with the transfer of data
between them and their peers.
Network layer - The network layer controls the operation of the subnet, deciding which physical path the
data should take based on network conditions, priority of service, and other factors.
Data link layer - The data link layer provides error-free transfer of data frames from one node to another
over the physical layer, allowing layers above it to assume virtually error-free transmission over the link.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 260

 

NEW QUESTION 67
Vendors have released patches fixing security flaws in their software. Which of the following should an IS auditor recommend in this situation?

  • A. install the security patch immediately.
  • B. Decline to deal with these vendors in the future.
  • C. Ask the vendors for a new software version with all fixes included.
  • D. Assess the impact of patches prior to installation.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The effect of installing the patch should be immediately evaluated and installation should occur based on the results of the evaluation. To install the patch without knowing what it might affect could easily cause problems. New software versions withall fixes included are not always available and a full installation could be time consuming. Declining to deal with vendors does not take care of the flaw.

 

NEW QUESTION 68
An organization's IS audit charter should specify the:

  • A. role of the IS audit function.
  • B. objectives and scope of IS audit engagements.
  • C. short- and long-term plans for IS audit engagements
  • D. detailed training plan for the IS audit staff.

Answer: A

Explanation:
An IS audit charter establishes the role of the information systems audit function. The charter should describe the overall authority, scope, and responsibilities of the audit function. It should be approved by the highest level of management and, if available, by the audit committee. Short-term and long-term planning is the responsibility of audit management. The objectives and scope of each IS audit should be agreed to in an engagement letter. A training plan, based on the audit plan, should be developed by audit management.

 

NEW QUESTION 69
Which of the following statement INCORRECTLY describes device and where they sit within the TCP/IP model?

  • A. Hub works at LAN or WAN interface layer of a TCP/IP model
  • B. Layer 4 switch work at Network interface layer in TCP/IP model
  • C. Router works at Network interface layer in TCP/IP model
  • D. Layer 3 switch work at Network interface layer in TCP/IP model

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The keyword within the question is INCORRECTLY. You need to find out incorrect statement.
For your exam you should know below information about TCP/IP model:
Network models

Layer 4. Application Layer
Application layer is the top most layer of four layer TCP/IP model. Application layer is present on the top of the Transport layer. Application layer defines TCP/IP application protocols and how host programs interface with Transport layer services to use the network.
Application layer includes all the higher-level protocols like DNS (Domain Naming System), HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), Telnet, SSH, FTP (File Transfer Protocol), TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol), SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) , DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol), X Windows, RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) etc.
Layer 3. Transport Layer
Transport Layer is the third layer of the four layer TCP/IP model. The position of the Transport layer is between Application layer and Internet layer. The purpose of Transport layer is to permit devices on the source and destination hosts to carry on a conversation. Transport layer defines the level of service and status of the connection used when transporting data.
The main protocols included at Transport layer are TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol).
Layer 2. Internet Layer
Internet Layer is the second layer of the four layer TCP/IP model. The position of Internet layer is between Network Access Layer and Transport layer. Internet layer pack data into data packets known as IP datagram's, which contain source and destination address (logical address or IP address) information that is used to forward the datagram's between hosts and across networks. The Internet layer is also responsible for routing of IP datagram's.
Packet switching network depends upon a connectionless internetwork layer. This layer is known as Internet layer. Its job is to allow hosts to insert packets into any network and have them to deliver independently to the destination. At the destination side data packets may appear in a different order than they were sent. It is the job of the higher layers to rearrange them in order to deliver them to proper network applications operating at the Application layer.
The main protocols included at Internet layer are IP (Internet Protocol), ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol), ARP (Address Resolution Protocol), RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol) and IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol).
Layer 1. Network Access Layer
Network Access Layer is the first layer of the four layer TCP/IP model. Network Access Layer defines details of how data is physically sent through the network, including how bits are electrically or optically signaled by hardware devices that interface directly with a network medium, such as coaxial cable, optical fiber, or twisted pair copper wire.
The protocols included in Network Access Layer are Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI, X.25, Frame Relay etc.
The most popular LAN architecture among those listed above is Ethernet. Ethernet uses an Access Method called CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection) to access the media, when Ethernet operates in a shared media. An Access Method determines how a host will place data on the medium.
IN CSMA/CD Access Method, every host has equal access to the medium and can place data on the wire when the wire is free from network traffic. When a host wants to place data on the wire, it will check the wire to find whether another host is already using the medium. If there is traffic already in the medium, the host will wait and if there is no traffic, it will place the data in the medium. But, if two systems place data on the medium at the same instance, they will collide with each other, destroying the data. If the data is destroyed during transmission, the data will need to be retransmitted. After collision, each host will wait for a small interval of time and again the data will be retransmitted.
Protocol Data Unit (PDU) :

Protocol Data Unit - PDU
The following answers are incorrect:
The other options correctly describes about network device functioning based on TCP/IP model The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 page number 272

 

NEW QUESTION 70
A checksum is classified as which type of control?

  • A. Detective control
  • B. Corrective control
  • C. Preventive control
  • D. Administrative control

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 71
Intrusion detection systems (IDSs) can:

  • A. conduct investigations of attacks from within the network
  • B. provide information to enhance the security infrastructure.
  • C. compensate for weak authentication mechanisms
  • D. substitute for a firewall.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 72
Which of the following roles is BEST suited to assign classification to an information asset?

  • A. The senior manager
  • B. The data owner
  • C. The information security manager
  • D. The data custodian

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets

 

NEW QUESTION 73
During a help desk review, an IS auditor determines the call abandonment rate exceeds agreed-upon service levels. What conclusion can be drawn from this finding?

  • A. There is insufficient staff to handle the help desk call volume.
  • B. Help desk staff are unable to resolve a sufficient number of problems on the first call.
  • C. Users are finding solutions from alternative sources.
  • D. There are insufficient telephone lines available to the help desk.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 74
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